Question:
Why do you say j’ai mangé instead of j’ai manger?
Demandé par: natalie
I might not be an expert, but just thinking logically (and translating literally):
J’ai mangé. (I have eaten)
« Mangé » meaning « eaten ». But when you say « J’ai manger » it would literally be translated as « I have eat », because « manger » is the infinitive.
That’s a very basic grammar concept. The past tense (passé composé) of a verb in -er is être or avoir + the past participle, -é.
- Je suis allé.
- J’ai mangé.
Etc etc
Note the use of the accent on é. It’s there for a reason, too.
You don’t say « j’ai mange » mais « j’ai mangé ». It is the past participle of « manger ». J’ai manger* amounts to saying « I have do ».
Because the French language has rules!
« Mangé » = « eaten » (= past participle of « eat ») in English. « J’ai » = « I have », as in either physical possession or « I have » in the past.
This implies that « J’ai mangé » = « I have eaten »!
The best way of seeing how wrong « J’ai manger » is to consider its best semi-literal translation which is « I must to eat ».
« I must eat » = « Je dois manger » (which also means « I have to eat ») so there is no translation of your phrase which makes sense in English!
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